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Phenomenonsense
01-26-2013, 09:44 PM
Should blocks be counted if they occur after a foul? I understand why they might not be counted, but I feel that it should be counted in the scheme of what a block is. A few reasons why I think it should be:

1) It encourages players to play through the whistle until the ball is dead. On offense this always happens, players consistently throw up faux prayers in hopes of a call in their favor. Defense should have some incentive as well.

2) The point of a block is to stop points from going into the basket. Blocks can result in either team getting possession, so it isn't a possession thing, but all about the points. Given that players have the opportunity to put points up and get credit for it after a whistle, blocks should be given the same credit.

3) Blocking the ball requires great awareness, timing, and positioning. Not only that, but they are exciting as well. I am all for rewarding those skills being showcased as often as possible. It's just more exciting basketball.

ombada
01-26-2013, 10:32 PM
given that a goaltend can be called after the whistle, i dont see why not.

LA4life24/8
01-26-2013, 10:57 PM
Yes because of the continuation rule, if a player can make a basket after a foul is called a player should be able to block said attemtped shot, as long as its not goaltended it should count as a block

blastmasta26
01-26-2013, 11:08 PM
Yes, if a basket can be counted then a block should be counted.

OceanSpray
01-26-2013, 11:16 PM
It wouldn't make sense to count a block after a foul. There wouldn't be a block if there wasn't a foul.

ombada
01-26-2013, 11:18 PM
It wouldn't make sense to count a block after a foul. There wouldn't be a block if there wasn't a foul.

Thats not true. By that logic no foul would go unblocked. If a player gets the ball up and it goes in does it count? So why not if he gets it up and its blocked?

OceanSpray
01-26-2013, 11:24 PM
Thats not true. By that logic no foul would go unblocked. If a player gets the ball up and it goes in does it count? So why not if he gets it up and its blocked?

Because it just doesn't make sense. Why award a player a block for a foul committed by your team?

ombada
01-26-2013, 11:37 PM
Because it just doesn't make sense. Why award a player a block for a foul committed by your team?

I see what youre saying. I understand that it shouldnt be rewarded, but usually the shot is blocked by a player that wasnt defending the shooter. So why punish his block for a foul committed by someone else? If it stops someone from putting points on the board it should be a legitimate block.

either way i dont care, i can see both sides of the argument.

ghettosean
01-26-2013, 11:38 PM
Because it just doesn't make sense. Why award a player a block for a foul committed by your team?

I would laugh like hell if a guy committed a flagrant foul and his teammate was awarded with a block because of the assistance.

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=g3uZAHt1AYc

Could you imagine if Kobe came in for the block on this play and the announcers go wild... OMG what a block by Kobe... LOL

ombada
01-26-2013, 11:47 PM
I would laugh like hell if a guy committed a flagrant foul and his teammate was awarded with a block because of the assistance.

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=g3uZAHt1AYc

Could you imagine if Kobe came in for the block on this play and the announcers go wild... OMG what a block by Kobe... LOL

Its not that the block would be celebrated, just that it would count on the stat sheet.

bklynny67
01-26-2013, 11:53 PM
Because it just doesn't make sense. Why award a player a block for a foul committed by your team?

I agree with you. While it's true that some blocks after fouls would have been blocked even if there was no foul committed, there are definitely a lot of times when a player was only able to block a shot because there was a foul.

OceanSpray
01-27-2013, 12:39 AM
I see what youre saying. I understand that it shouldnt be rewarded, but usually the shot is blocked by a player that wasnt defending the shooter. So why punish his block for a foul committed by someone else? If it stops someone from putting points on the board it should be a legitimate block.

either way i dont care, i can see both sides of the argument.

If a player is getting fouled, they should be rewarded if they make the shot since there was contact and thus making the shot tougher.

I understand both ways though.

LakersIn5
01-27-2013, 01:14 AM
another good question is. if a player gets fouled while shooting should the player who assisted get the assist if the player makes both free throw.

Chronz
01-27-2013, 01:37 AM
No because there is no official FG/A being made most of the time, unless theres an and1.

thesprite
01-27-2013, 01:43 AM
another good question is. if a player gets fouled while shooting should the player who assisted get the assist if the player makes both free throw.

Really? A good question? wow

Anyway, to answer the question. Yes, it should be counted.. might as well ask, if the player you fouled makes the basket, will you count it in the stat sheet? If you give the offense an opportunity to score after a whistle, it is just fair to award a guy who made a defensive play after the whistle.

Raidaz4Life
01-27-2013, 07:28 AM
No it should not because if the player misses, the FG attempt doesn't count.... its a freebee. So theoretically speaking on the stat sheet, you could end up with a block.... but no attempted shot?

king4day
01-27-2013, 10:45 AM
Good OP. I agree 100%

mightybosstone
01-27-2013, 11:00 AM
No because there is no official FG/A being made most of the time, unless theres an and1.

This. More often than not, no official field goal is in play, so why should a player get credit for something after the foul? Also, because continuation is up to the referees' decision and because there is so often a fine line between a foul and a block, I think counting blocks after a foul (even during continuation) is just too sketchy.

I Rock Shaqs
01-27-2013, 11:10 AM
I was going to give a drawn out explanation but I don't need to, if the basket can still count and goal tending can still be called then a block should still count then too, but only if it's by the person who did not commit the foul.

mightybosstone
01-27-2013, 11:25 AM
I was going to give a drawn out explanation but I don't need to, if the basket can still count and goal tending can still be called then a block should still count then too, but only if it's by the person who did not commit the foul.

But based on this logic, what about steals? Suppose a player is driving to the basket and gets fouled, but continues to drive because of the continuation rule. Then an opposing player runs in, knocks the ball out of his hands before he attempt a shot and starts running the other way with the ball? Should that be considered a steal, because technically the play is dead and the stealing player does not gain possession. But clearly the player took the ball away before the driving player had a chance to attempt a shot.

As you can see, there are just way too many issues that come up when you start giving defensive stats to players after the foul. And as one person already mentioned, since the continuation basket only counts as an attempt if it goes in, it makes no sense to give a player a block after the foul. How you can block a field goal attempt that doesn't exist?

On a side note, you have perhaps the most obnoxious sig of anyone I've seen on PSD in a while. I got a headache just writing this post, and I'm pretty sure I'm like five seconds away from having an epileptic seizure.

lamzoka
01-27-2013, 11:28 AM
I was leaning toward yes it should count. But I'm convinced it shouldn't. Here is why:

1- The player attempting to block the shot foul the offensive player after the initial foul is called, cannot be call for another foul. So therefor he shouldn't be rewarded for a block.

2- The only reason why that player was able to block the shot is because the offensive player was fouled.

3- Player A on Defense gets a foul
Player B on Defense gets a block???
Player AA on offense gets no FGA
Player AA on offense still shoots FTs
( just doesnt make sense)

HouRealCoach
01-27-2013, 11:43 AM
a basket would so why can't a block?

I Rock Shaqs
01-27-2013, 12:01 PM
But based on this logic, what about steals? Suppose a player is driving to the basket and gets fouled, but continues to drive because of the continuation rule. Then an opposing player runs in, knocks the ball out of his hands before he attempt a shot and starts running the other way with the ball? Should that be considered a steal, because technically the play is dead and the stealing player does not gain possession. But clearly the player took the ball away before the driving player had a chance to attempt a shot.

As you can see, there are just way too many issues that come up when you start giving defensive stats to players after the foul. And as one person already mentioned, since the continuation basket only counts as an attempt if it goes in, it makes no sense to give a player a block after the foul. How you can block a field goal attempt that doesn't exist?

On a side note, you have perhaps the most obnoxious sig of anyone I've seen on PSD in a while. I got a headache just writing this post, and I'm pretty sure I'm like five seconds away from having an epileptic seizure.

Situations like that don't happen, what does running down the court have to do with anything, and it's not even close to the same as stealing the ball. You don't understand the point of this thread it's about after the shot has been taken so your hypothetical situation is irrelevant.

mightybosstone
01-27-2013, 12:11 PM
Situations like that don't happen, what does running down the court have to do with anything, and it's not even close to the same as stealing the ball. You don't understand the point of this thread it's about after the shot has been taken so your hypothetical situation is irrelevant.

Lol. No, I completely understand the point of this thread, and it's still wrong. And I'm referring to continuation on a drive. Often times, referees will allow continuation if a player is driving to the basket, takes a couple of steps and dunks or lays it in. In my hypothetical situation, an opposing player would steal the ball to prevent the And-1 similar to how a blocker would prevent the And-1 in the OP's hypothetical. And in both situations, the definition of a steal or block is not completely accurate. To complete a block, you have to negate a field goal and to complete a steal you have to gain possession. But in both instances during continuation, those things are not taking place.

Minimal
01-27-2013, 12:27 PM
No. Why would someone get a block on a player who got fouled? If player is fouled his shots timing and trajectory is offset and makes it much easier for a blocking player to block. Do you understand what I'm saying?

Jamiecballer
01-27-2013, 12:45 PM
this is an incredibly stupid question. no it should not. if the player gets a shot up while being fouled you have to give it an opportunity to be go in. impeding the shot is not giving it a chance to go in.

Chronz
01-27-2013, 01:49 PM
a basket would so why can't a block?

How can you block a possession that never existed?

MrfadeawayJB
01-27-2013, 04:06 PM
since most people have a bad habit of quitting on the play once a whistle is blown, i would count it as 1/2 of a block.

JasonJohnHorn
01-27-2013, 04:13 PM
There are instances when a player who DIDN'T commit the fouls gets the block. These should certainly be counted as blocks. And if a player commits a fouls AND a block, I don't see why both should be counted. Yes, he committed a foul, but h also blocked the shot, so he prevented a potential 3-point play.