
Originally Posted by
stephkyle7
one thing you are missing in your understanding is that up until 570 AD there was no muslim faith, so everyone was esentially arab,and everyone was essentialy Jewish, or hebrew.In 570 the Mulim faith sprang up and splintered from the old testament teachings, but beliefs do not an ethnicity make.
There is no question that from a historical discussion of the issue that ,the land in question was Jewish land..no question whatsoever.
some of the people living there decided to stop being Jewish essentially.
As far as ethnic cleansing and territory takeover, none of that REALLY started until the arab revolts following ww1, in 1929, and 1936, there were attacks against the jewish settlers BEFORE Israel was even officially recognized, once it WAS recognized, the 700,000 Palestinians that were forced out were done so out of fear of continued Violence.
Thing simmered a bit before the Arab israeli war of 1948, which is when Israel expanded its borders, while at the same time Jordan encroached into the West Bank, and Egypt took the Gaza strip.
So in a nut shell, it went like this Roman-ottman-British, then broken into Jordan and Palestine(for the jews) then palestine was broken down again into arab and Jewish.
Bottom line is there was no level of Jewish autonomy that the Arab people were going to allow quietly.
when they tried to get tough, they got beat down and even more of their land got taken ....twice, now they want it back and The Israelis are like why should we? you havent stopped Fing with us from day one.
Well I don't see what difference anything from 570 makes.
Good point about the arab revolts. I'm really not too schooled on anything from before the time official "Israel" was created, so I definitely should look into these things. What were the revolts about? Why did they take place, and why were they directed toward jews?
And what do you mean by Jewish autonomy? If they are within and intermixed with other people, how could they have autonomy? Doesn't everyone need to be integrated?
One thing here that I don't really get is what is this need of segregation? Look, I'm not a historian, but as far as I know, when these lands were under rule of islamic empire, people of all faiths/races lived there, people of all faiths/races had representatives holding positions and actively participating in the gov't (for the most part, I think there were a couple rulers who kinda went buckwild). When people are all mixed and living together, what other course can you possibly take? America is a melting pot and is a perfect example of this. How does it make sense for east asians living here to want autonomy and so force out people of other race and move in people of their own? Or if sikhs want autonomy so they cleanse out certain neighborhoods and fill it with their own? This makes no sense. If multiple groups of people live there, does it not make sense that all those people are just treated as normal citizens?
Last edited by nastynice; 12-06-2012 at 07:16 PM.
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